Wednesday, November 7, 2007

Interpretive question

Hey, here is my question and answer to the interpretive question:

Why do the Athenians make it clear from the beginning that they do not want to speak of justice?


If you were a master writer, would you treat an illiterate as an equal or an inferior?
Maybe in normal life you would treat them as an equal, but in writing you would treat them as inferior.
The Athenians define justice as being applicable only when two entities are of equal power.
The Athenians see Melos as inferior, and according to their definition of justice, believe that it should not be used in their situation.
The Athenians feel that they are a super-power, and should not be bothered with what they consider to be a nothing more than a nuisance. They have great confidence that the Lacedaemonian's will not come to Melos aid, and as such, they consider the island as so insignificant, that it is not even worth trying to make an ally.
Their view of the island as ridiculously weak is not entirely true, as when the Melians refuse to become the Athenian’s slaves, and Athens retaliates by holding a siege on Melos, the Melians manage to inflict unexpected damage upon the Athenian troops. It is only when there was internal treachery that they were defeated, and if not for the internal treachery, they may have survived.
However, since the Athenians did not know this in advance, and after, if they did not wipe out the Melians they believed that the world would consider them weak, they decided not to speak of justice when dealing with the Melians.

-bob

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